Michael16

Read my main question on the translation of Gal 3:21 "if a law had been given" https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/25183/is-it-appropriate-to-translate-galatians-321-as-if-a-law-had-been-given

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Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as "If a law had been given"?

greek translation-philosophy paul galatians law asked Sep 16, 2016 at 19:39

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

12 votes

What are the oldest known records of interpretation agreeing with New Perspective on Paul?

paul historical-interpretation asked Sep 26, 2016 at 18:50

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

6 votes

Does Isaiah 66:15-18 mean those who eat pigs and mice will be judged and slain?

isaiah law asked Mar 14, 2017 at 8:25

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

5 votes

What is an overview of Lutheran faith-alone systematically taught before Martin Luther?

church-history soteriology protestantism martin-luther sola-fide asked Oct 28, 2016 at 16:58

christianity.stackexchange.com

5 votes

Sin Vs Transgression: is there a technical difference? Lev 16:16 "uncleannesses, transgressions, all their sins"

word-study leviticus sin definition asked Jun 5, 2021 at 9:19

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

5 votes

Who first interpretated John 8:58 ego eimi as Yahweh claim?

greek john exodus historical-interpretation tetragrammaton asked Aug 5, 2021 at 3:14

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

5 votes

Why did God instituted the Sacrificial system if prayers can atone for sins?

korban kaparah-atonement asked Jun 26, 2021 at 10:38

judaism.stackexchange.com

5 votes

Does being "least in the kingdom" signify hell in Matt 5:19?

matthew law sin asked Nov 6, 2016 at 9:03

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com

5 votes

Which work did Jesus mean in John 17:4 about already finishing the work that God gave him?

john contradiction asked Feb 28, 2017 at 8:01

hermeneutics.stackexchange.com