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Top Questions
8
votes
In Hebrews 1:8-9: Is ὁ θεός nominative or vocative?
greek
grammar
hebrews
asked May 17, 2020 at 11:43
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
Top Answers
21
Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
14
Why does Matthew 28:19 say "in the name" and then proceed to give three names?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
13
What does John mean by "The Word was θεός" at John 1:1?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
10
Hebrews 11:20, Did Isaac bless Esau?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
10
Hebrews 13:5 quotes God saying he would never leave nor forsake us. Where is the original quote?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
8
Where does this quote in Romans 2:24 come from?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
7
How can John 1:18 say that "No man has seen God" when the Bible says that Abraham, Moses, Job and others have?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
7
Which covenant was confirmed "with the many"for one week? (Daniel 9:27)
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
6
Is Lucifer a proper name of Satan according to Isaiah 14:12?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
5
How long was Jesus in the tomb?
christianity.stackexchange.com
5
Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
5
Exodus 9:12, How is it accepted that the LORD hardens the heart of Pharaoh, then Punishes him for that?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
5
Was Melchisedeck eternal in Hebrews 7:3?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
5
When did angels ever deliver the word? (Heb. 2:2)
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
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