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In the Lennard-Jones potential, why does the attractive part (dispersion) have an $r^{-6}$ dependence?
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In the Lennard-Jones potential, why does the attractive part (dispersion) have an $r^{-6}$ dependence?
@JohnRennie OK, thanks. I was thinking that the derivation would involve a dipole-dipole interaction, but I guess it is more complicated than that.
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In the Lennard-Jones potential, why does the attractive part (dispersion) have an $r^{-6}$ dependence?
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