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darij grinberg

Cambridge, MA

cip.ifi.lmu.de/~grinberg

Age: 24

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Top Questions
7 votes

Why is the (-1)-th coefficient of $f^n f'$ equal to 0, without dividing by $n+1$?

commutative-algebra polynomials residue-calculus abstract-algebra asked Apr 9 '12 at 20:45
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Top Answers
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Product with primitive central idempotent in a complex group ring
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