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darij grinberg
Cambridge, MA
cip.ifi.lmu.de/~grinberg
Age: 24
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Top Questions
7
votes
Why is the (-1)-th coefficient of $f^n f'$ equal to 0, without dividing by $n+1$?
commutative-algebra
polynomials
residue-calculus
abstract-algebra
asked Apr 9 '12 at 20:45
math.stackexchange.com
Top Answers
7
what are the uses of this identity
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6
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5
Permutation on a set from $\{1, 2, \ldots, 2n\}$
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5
Product with primitive central idempotent in a complex group ring
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5
Can this product be written so that symmetry is manifest?
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